Pass CompTIA CAS-005 exam questions - convert Test Engine to PDF [Q34-Q59]

Pass CompTIA CAS-005 exam questions - convert Test Engine to PDF

Pass Your CAS-005 Exam Easily - Real CAS-005 Practice Dump Updated Oct 20, 2024

NEW QUESTION # 34
Users are experiencing a variety of issues when trying to access corporate resources examples include
* Connectivity issues between local computers and file servers within branch offices
* Inability to download corporate applications on mobile endpoints wtiilc working remotely
* Certificate errors when accessing internal web applications
Which of the following actions are the most relevant when troubleshooting the reported issues? (Select two).

• A. Check IPS rules
• B. Review VPN throughput
• C. Implement advanced WAF rules.
• D. Validate MDM asset compliance
• E. Enable secure authentication using NAC
• F. Restore static content on lite CDN.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
The reported issues suggest problems related to network connectivity, remote access, and certificate management:
* A. Review VPN throughput: Connectivity issues and the inability to download applications while working remotely may be due to VPN bandwidth or performance issues. Reviewing and optimizing VPN throughput can help resolve these problems by ensuring that remote users have adequate bandwidth for accessing corporate resources.
* F. Validate MDM asset compliance: Mobile Device Management (MDM) systems ensure that mobile endpoints comply with corporate security policies. Validating MDM compliance can help address issues related to the inability to download applications and certificate errors, as non-compliant devices might be blocked from accessing certain resources.
* B. Check IPS rules: While important for security, IPS rules are less likely to directly address the connectivity and certificate issues described.
* C. Restore static content on the CDN: This action is related to content delivery but does not address VPN or certificate-related issues.
* D. Enable secure authentication using NAC: Network Access Control (NAC) enhances security but does not directly address the specific issues described.
* E. Implement advanced WAF rules: Web Application Firewalls protect web applications but do not address VPN throughput or mobile device compliance.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-77, "Guide to IPsec VPNs"
* CIS Controls, "Control 11: Secure Configuration for Network Devices"

NEW QUESTION # 35
A company receives reports about misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in a third-party hardware device that is part of its released products. Which of the following solutions is the best way for the company to identify possible issues at an earlier stage?

• A. Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line
• B. Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers
• C. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management program
• D. Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the vendor appliance

Answer: C

Explanation:
Addressing misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in third-party hardware requires a comprehensive approach to manage risks throughout the supply chain. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management (SCRM) program is the most effective solution as it encompasses the following:
* Holistic Approach: SCRM considers the entire lifecycle of the product, from initial design through to delivery and deployment. This ensures that risks are identified and managed at every stage.
* Vendor Management: It includes thorough vetting of suppliers and ongoing assessments of their security practices, which can identify and mitigate vulnerabilities early.
* Regular Audits and Assessments: A robust SCRM program involves regular audits and assessments, both internally and with suppliers, to ensure compliance with security standards and best practices.
* Collaboration and Communication: Ensures that there is effective communication and collaboration between the company and its suppliers, leading to faster identification and resolution of issues.
Other options, while beneficial, do not provide the same comprehensive risk management:
* A. Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers: While useful, this is reactive and only addresses issues after they have been delivered.
* B. Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line: This can identify vulnerabilities but is not as comprehensive as a full SCRM program.
* C. Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the vendor appliance: This is important but only covers the integration phase, not the entire supply chain.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-161, "Supply Chain Risk Management Practices for Federal Information Systems and Organizations"
* ISO/IEC 27036-1:2014, "Information technology - Security techniques - Information security for supplier relationships"

NEW QUESTION # 36
A systems administrator works with engineers to process and address vulnerabilities as a result of continuous scanning activities. The primary challenge faced by the administrator is differentiating between valid and invalid findings. Which of the following would the systems administrator most likely verify is properly configured?

• A. Scanning credentials
• B. Report retention time
• C. Testing cadence
• D. Exploit definitions

Answer: A

Explanation:
When differentiating between valid and invalid findings from vulnerability scans, the systems administrator should verify that the scanning credentials are properly configured. Valid credentials ensure that the scanner can authenticate and access the systems being evaluated, providing accurate and comprehensive results.
Without proper credentials, scans may miss vulnerabilities or generate false positives, making it difficult to prioritize and address the findings effectively.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Highlights the importance of using valid credentials for accurate vulnerability scanning.
* "Vulnerability Management" by Park Foreman: Discusses the role of scanning credentials in obtaining accurate scan results and minimizing false positives.
* "The Art of Network Security Monitoring" by Richard Bejtlich: Covers best practices for configuring and using vulnerability scanning tools, including the need for valid credentials.

NEW QUESTION # 37
A systems administrator wants to introduce a newly released feature for an internal application. The administrate docs not want to test the feature in the production environment. Which of the following locations is the best place to test the new feature?

• A. Testing environment
• B. Staging environment
• C. Development environment
• D. CI/CO pipeline

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 38
Developers have been creating and managing cryptographic material on their personal laptops fix use in production environment. A security engineer needs to initiate a more secure process. Which of the following is the best strategy for the engineer to use?

• A. Employing shielding lo prevent LMI
• B. Managing secrets on the vTPM hardware
• C. Managing key material on a HSM
• D. Disabling the BIOS and moving to UEFI

Answer: C

Explanation:
The best strategy for securely managing cryptographic material is to use a Hardware Security Module (HSM).
Here's why:
* Security and Integrity: HSMs are specialized hardware devices designed to protect and manage digital keys. They provide high levels of physical and logical security, ensuring that cryptographic material is well protected against tampering and unauthorized access.
* Centralized Key Management: Using HSMs allows for centralized management of cryptographic keys, reducing the risks associated with decentralized and potentially insecure key storage practices, such as on personal laptops.
* Compliance and Best Practices: HSMs comply with various industry standards and regulations (such as FIPS 140-2) for secure key management. This ensures that the organization adheres to best practices and meets compliance requirements.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-57: Recommendation for Key Management
* ISO/IEC 19790:2012: Information Technology - Security Techniques - Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules

NEW QUESTION # 39
A company lined an email service provider called my-email.com to deliver company emails. The company stalled having several issues during the migration. A security engineer is troubleshooting and observes the following configuration snippet:

Which of the following should the security engineer modify to fix the issue? (Select two).

• A. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10
• B. The srv01 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the web01 server
• C. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.111
• D. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dkim ip4:192.168.1.10 include:email-all"
• E. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include:my-email.com -all"
• F. The TXT record must be changed to "v=dkim ip4:l92.168.1.11 include my-email.com -ell"
• G. The srvo1 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the email server

Answer: A,E

Explanation:
The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:
* Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to
192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is
* required. Changing it to an A record ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.
* TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting
& Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.
* DMARC: Ensuring the DMARC record is correctly set up helps in preventing email spoofing and phishing, aligning with email security best practices.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* RFC 7489: Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance (DMARC)
* NIST Special Publication 800-45: Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security

NEW QUESTION # 40
While reviewing recent modem reports, a security officer discovers that several employees were contacted by the same individual who impersonated a recruiter. Which of the following best describes this type of correlation?

• A. Threat modeling
• B. Spear-phishing campaign
• C. Red team assessment
• D. Attack pattern analysis

Answer: B

Explanation:
The situation where several employees were contacted by the same individual impersonating a recruiter best describes a spear-phishing campaign. Here's why:
* Targeted Approach: Spear-phishing involves targeting specific individuals within an organization with personalized and convincing messages to trick them into divulging sensitive information or performing actions that compromise security.
* Impersonation: The use of impersonation, in this case, a recruiter, is a common tactic in spear-phishing to gain the trust of the targeted individuals and increase the likelihood of a successful attack.
* Correlated Contacts: The fact that several employees were contacted by the same individual suggests a coordinated effort to breach the organization's security by targeting multiple points of entry through social engineering.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-61: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide
* OWASP Phishing Cheat Sheet

NEW QUESTION # 41
Within a SCADA a business needs access to the historian server in order together metric about the functionality of the environment. Which of the following actions should be taken to address this requirement?

• A. Isolating the historian server for connections only from The SCADA environment
• B. Deploying a screened subnet between 11 and SCADA
• C. Adding the business workstations to the SCADA domain
• D. Publishing the C$ share from SCADA to the enterprise

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best action to address the requirement of accessing the historian server within a SCADA system is to isolate the historian server for connections only from the SCADA environment. Here's why:
* Security and Isolation: Isolating the historian server ensures that only authorized devices within the SCADA environment can connect to it. This minimizes the attack surface and protects sensitive data from unauthorized access.
* Access Control: By restricting access to the historian server to only SCADA devices, the organization can better control and monitor interactions, ensuring that only legitimate queries and data retrievals occur.
* Best Practices for Critical Infrastructure: Following the principle of least privilege, isolating critical components like the historian server is a standard practice in securing SCADA systems, reducing the risk of cyberattacks.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-82: Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security
* ISA/IEC 62443 Standards: Security for Industrial Automation and Control Systems

NEW QUESTION # 42
A company that uses containers to run its applications is required to identify vulnerabilities on every container image in a private repository The security team needs to be able to quickly evaluate whether to respond to a given vulnerability Which of the following, will allow the security team to achieve the objective with the last effort?

• A. Centralized SBoM
• B. SAST scan reports
• C. Credentialed vulnerability scan
• D. CIS benchmark compliance reports

Answer: A

Explanation:
A centralized Software Bill of Materials (SBoM) is the best solution for identifying vulnerabilities in container images in a private repository. An SBoM provides a comprehensive inventory of all components, dependencies, and their versions within a container image, facilitating quick evaluation and response to vulnerabilities.
Why Centralized SBoM?
* Comprehensive Inventory: An SBoM lists all software components, including their versions and dependencies, allowing for thorough vulnerability assessments.
* Quick Identification: Centralizing SBoM data enables rapid identification of affected containers when a vulnerability is disclosed.
* Automation: SBoMs can be integrated into automated tools for continuous monitoring and alerting of vulnerabilities.
* Regulatory Compliance: Helps in meeting compliance requirements by providing a clear and auditable record of all software components used.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of comprehensive and efficient vulnerability management:
* A. SAST scan reports: Focuses on static analysis of code but may not cover all components in container images.
* C. CIS benchmark compliance reports: Ensures compliance with security benchmarks but does not provide detailed component inventory.
* D. Credentialed vulnerability scan: Useful for in-depth scans but may not be as efficient for quick vulnerability evaluation.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* "Software Bill of Materials (SBoM)," NIST Documentation
* "Managing Container Security with SBoM," OWASP

NEW QUESTION # 43
An organization is developing on Al-enabled digital worker to help employees complete common tasks such as template development, editing, research, and scheduling. As part of the Al workload the organization wants to Implement guardrails within the platform. Which of the following should the company do to secure the Al environment?

• A. Grant the system the ability to self-govern
• B. Limn the platform's abilities to only non-sensitive functions
• C. Enhance the training model's effectiveness.
• D. Require end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Limiting the platform's abilities to only non-sensitive functions helps to mitigate risks associated with AI operations. By ensuring that the AI-enabled digital worker is only allowed to perform tasks that do not involve sensitive or critical data, the organization reduces the potential impact of any security breaches or misuse.
Enhancing the training model's effectiveness (Option B) is important but does not directly address security guardrails. Granting the system the ability to self-govern (Option C) could increase risk as it may act beyond the organization's control. Requiring end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies (Option D) is a good practice but does not implement technical guardrails to secure the AI environment.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"
* ISO/IEC 27001, "Information Security Management"

NEW QUESTION # 44
A security analyst received a notification from a cloud service provider regarding an attack detected on a web server The cloud service provider shared the following information about the attack:
* The attack came from inside the network.
* The attacking source IP was from the internal vulnerability scanners.
* The scanner is not configured to target the cloud servers.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?

• A. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host
• B. Quarantine the scanner sensor to perform a forensic analysis
• C. Set network behavior analysis rules
• D. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs m order to avoid false positives

Answer: B

Explanation:
When a security analyst receives a notification about an attack that appears to originate from an internal vulnerability scanner, it suggests that the scanner itself might have been compromised. This situation is critical because a compromised scanner can potentially conduct unauthorized scans, leak sensitive information, or execute malicious actions within the network. The appropriate first action involves containing the threat to prevent further damage and allow for a thorough investigation.
Here's why quarantining the scanner sensor is the best immediate action:
* Containment and Isolation: Quarantining the scanner will immediately prevent it from continuing any malicious activity or scans. This containment is crucial to protect the rest of the network from potential harm.
* Forensic Analysis: By isolating the scanner, a forensic analysis can be performed to understand how it was compromised, what actions it took, and what data or systems might have been affected. This analysis will provide valuable insights into the nature of the attack and help in taking appropriate remedial actions.
* Preventing Further Attacks: If the scanner is allowed to continue operating, it might execute more unauthorized actions, leading to greater damage. Quarantine ensures that the threat is neutralized promptly.
* Root Cause Identification: A forensic analysis can help identify vulnerabilities in the scanner's configuration, software, or underlying system that allowed the compromise. This information is essential for preventing future incidents.
Other options, while potentially useful in the long term, are not appropriate as immediate actions in this scenario:
* A. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs to avoid false positives: This action addresses false positives but does not mitigate the immediate threat posed by the compromised scanner.
* B. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host: This step is preventive for future scans but does not deal with the current incident where the scanner is already compromised.
* C. Set network behavior analysis rules: While useful for ongoing monitoring and detection, this does not address the immediate need to stop the compromised scanner's activities.
In conclusion, the first and most crucial action is to quarantine the scanner sensor to halt any malicious activity and perform a forensic analysis to understand the scope and nature of the compromise. This step ensures that the threat is contained and provides a basis for further remediation efforts.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"

NEW QUESTION # 45
A cloud engineer needs to identify appropriate solutions to:
* Provide secure access to internal and external cloud resources.
* Eliminate split-tunnel traffic flows.
* Enable identity and access management capabilities.
Which of the following solutions arc the most appropriate? (Select two).

• A. Microsegmentation
• B. SASE
• C. Federation
• D. SD-WAN
• E. PAM
• F. CASB

Answer: B,F

Explanation:
To provide secure access to internal and external cloud resources, eliminate split-tunnel traffic flows, and enable identity and access management capabilities, the most appropriate solutions are CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) and SASE (Secure Access Service Edge).
Why CASB and SASE?
* CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker):
* Secure Access: CASB solutions provide secure access to cloud resources by enforcing security policies and monitoring user activities.
* Identity and Access Management: CASBs integrate with identity and access management (IAM) systems to ensure that only authorized users can access cloud resources.
* Visibility and Control: They offer visibility into cloud application usage and control over data sharing and access.
* SASE (Secure Access Service Edge):
* Eliminate Split-Tunnel Traffic: SASE integrates network security functions with WAN capabilities to ensure secure access without the need for split-tunnel configurations.
* Comprehensive Security: SASE provides a holistic security approach, including secure web gateways, firewalls, and zero trust network access (ZTNA).
* Identity-Based Access: SASE leverages IAM to enforce access controls based on user identity and context.
Other options, while useful, do not comprehensively address all the requirements:
* A. Federation: Useful for identity management but does not eliminate split-tunnel traffic or provide comprehensive security.
* B. Microsegmentation: Enhances security within the network but does not directly address secure access to cloud resources or split-tunnel traffic.
* D. PAM (Privileged Access Management): Focuses on managing privileged accounts and does not provide comprehensive access control for internal and external resources.
* E. SD-WAN: Enhances WAN performance but does not inherently provide the identity and access management capabilities or eliminate split-tunnel traffic.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* "CASB: Cloud Access Security Broker," Gartner Research

NEW QUESTION # 46
A security officer received several complaints from users about excessive MPA push notifications at night The security team investigates and suspects malicious activities regarding user account authentication Which of the following is the best way for the security officer to restrict MI~A notifications''

• A. Provisioning FID02 devices
• B. Deploying a text message based on MFA
• C. Configuring prompt-driven MFA
• D. Enabling OTP via email

Answer: C

Explanation:
Excessive MFA push notifications can be a sign of an attempted push notification attack, where attackers repeatedly send MFA prompts hoping the user will eventually approve one by mistake. To mitigate this:
* A. Provisioning FIDO2 devices: While FIDO2 devices offer strong authentication, they may not be practical for all users and do not directly address the issue of excessive push notifications.
* B. Deploying a text message-based MFA: SMS-based MFA can still be vulnerable to similar spamming attacks and phishing.
* C. Enabling OTP via email: Email-based OTPs add another layer of security but do not directly solve the issue of excessive notifications.
* D. Configuring prompt-driven MFA: This option allows users to respond to prompts in a secure manner, often including features like time-limited approval windows, additional verification steps, or requiring specific actions to approve. This can help prevent users from accidentally approving malicious attempts.
Configuring prompt-driven MFA is the best solution to restrict unnecessary MFA notifications and improve security.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-63B, "Digital Identity Guidelines"
* "Multi-Factor Authentication: Best Practices" by Microsoft

NEW QUESTION # 47
A company receives several complaints from customers regarding its website. An engineer implements a parser for the web server logs that generates the following output:

which of the following should the company implement to best resolve the issue?

• A. NAC
• B. IDS
• C. CDN
• D. WAF

Answer: C

Explanation:
The table indicates varying load times for users accessing the website from different geographic locations.
Customers from Australia and India are experiencing significantly higher load times compared to those from the United States. This suggests that latency and geographical distance are affecting the website's performance.
* A. IDS (Intrusion Detection System): While an IDS is useful for detecting malicious activities, it does not address performance issues related to latency and geographical distribution of content.
* B. CDN (Content Delivery Network): A CDN stores copies of the website's content in multiple geographic locations. By serving content from the nearest server to the user, a CDN can significantly reduce load times and improve user experience globally.
* C. WAF (Web Application Firewall): A WAF protects web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic but does not improve performance related to geographical latency.
* D. NAC (Network Access Control): NAC solutions control access to network resources but are not designed to address web performance issues.
Implementing a CDN is the best solution to resolve the performance issues observed in the log output.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* "CDN: Content Delivery Networks Explained" by Akamai Technologies
* NIST SP 800-44, "Guidelines on Securing Public Web Servers"

NEW QUESTION # 48
Users must accept the terms presented in a captive petal when connecting to a guest network. Recently, users have reported that they are unable to access the Internet after joining the network A network engineer observes the following:
* Users should be redirected to the captive portal.
* The Motive portal runs Tl. S 1 2
* Newer browser versions encounter security errors that cannot be bypassed
* Certain websites cause unexpected re directs
Which of the following mow likely explains this behavior?

• A. An attacker is redirecting supplicants to an evil twin WLAN.
• B. Allowed traffic rules are causing the NIPS to drop legitimate traffic
• C. Employment of the HSTS setting is proliferating rapidly.
• D. The TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal ate deprecated

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most likely explanation for the issues encountered with the captive portal is that the TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal are deprecated. Here's why:
* TLS Cipher Suites: Modern browsers are continuously updated to support the latest security standards and often drop support for deprecated and insecure cipher suites. If the captive portal uses outdated TLS ciphers, newer browsers may refuse to connect, causing security errors.
* HSTS and Browser Security: Browsers with HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) enabled will not allow connections to sites with weak security configurations. Deprecated TLS ciphers would cause these browsers to block the connection.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-52: Guidelines for the Selection, Configuration, and Use of Transport Layer Security (TLS) Implementations
* OWASP Transport Layer Protection Cheat Sheet
By updating the TLS ciphers to modern, supported ones, the security engineer can ensure compatibility with newer browser versions and resolve the connectivity issues reported by users.

NEW QUESTION # 49
A security analyst is reviewing the following authentication logs:

Which of the following should the analyst do first?

• A. Disable User1's account
• B. Disable User8's account
• C. Disable User12's account
• D. Disable User2's account

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on the provided authentication logs, we observe that User1's account experienced multiple failed login attempts within a very short time span (at 8:01:23 AM on 12/15). This pattern indicates a potential brute-force attack or an attempt to gain unauthorized access. Here's a breakdown of why disabling User1's account is the appropriate first step:
* Failed Login Attempts: The logs show that User1 had four consecutive failed login attempts:
* VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
* VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
* VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
* VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
* Security Protocols and Best Practices: According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, multiple failed login attempts within a short timeframe should trigger an immediate response to prevent further potential unauthorized access attempts. This typically involves temporarily disabling the account to stop ongoing brute-force attacks.
* Account Lockout Policy: Implementing an account lockout policy is a standard practice to thwart brute-force attacks. Disabling User1's account will align with these best practices and prevent further failed attempts, which might lead to successful unauthorized access if not addressed.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives
* NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines
By addressing User1's account first, we effectively mitigate the immediate threat of a brute-force attack, ensuring that further investigation can be conducted without the risk of unauthorized access continuing during the investigation period.

NEW QUESTION # 50
An organization mat performs real-time financial processing is implementing a new backup solution Given the following business requirements?
* The backup solution must reduce the risk for potential backup compromise
* The backup solution must be resilient to a ransomware attack.
* The time to restore from backups is less important than the backup data integrity
* Multiple copies of production data must be maintained
Which of the following backup strategies best meets these requirement?

• A. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis
• B. Enabling remote journaling on the databases to ensure real-time transactions are mirrored
• C. Setting up antitempering on the databases to ensure data cannot be changed unintentionally
• D. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync

Answer: A

Explanation:
* A. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis: An immutable storage array ensures that data, once written, cannot be altered or deleted. This greatly reduces the risk of backup compromise and provides resilience against ransomware attacks, as the ransomware cannot modify or delete the backup data. Maintaining multiple copies of production data with an immutable storage solution ensures data integrity and compliance with the requirement for multiple copies.
Other options:
* B. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync: While this ensures data redundancy, it does not provide protection against ransomware attacks, as both arrays could be compromised simultaneously.
* C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases: This ensures real-time transaction mirroring but does not address the requirement for reducing the risk of backup compromise or resilience to ransomware.
* D. Setting up anti-tampering on the databases: While this helps ensure data integrity, it does not provide a comprehensive backup solution that meets all the specified requirements.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-209, "Security Guidelines for Storage Infrastructure"
* "Immutable Backup Architecture" by Veeam

NEW QUESTION # 51
A security analyst wants to use lessons learned from a poor incident response to reduce dwell lime in the future The analyst is using the following data points

Which of the following would the analyst most likely recommend?

• A. Adjusting the SIEM to alert on attempts to visit phishing sites
• B. utilizing allow lists on the WAF for all users using GFT methods
• C. Allowing TRACE method traffic to enable better log correlation
• D. Enabling alerting on all suspicious administrator behavior

Answer: D

Explanation:
In the context of improving incident response and reducing dwell time, the security analyst needs to focus on proactive measures that can quickly detect and alert on potential security breaches. Here's a detailed analysis of the options provided:
A: Adjusting the SIEM to alert on attempts to visit phishing sites: While this is a useful measure to prevent phishing attacks, it primarily addresses external threats and doesn't directly impact dwell time reduction, which focuses on the time a threat remains undetected within a network.
B: Allowing TRACE method traffic to enable better log correlation: The TRACE method in HTTP is used for debugging purposes, but enabling it can introduce security vulnerabilities. It's not typically recommended for enhancing security monitoring or incident response.
C: Enabling alerting on all suspicious administrator behavior: This option directly targets the potential misuse of administrator accounts, which are often high-value targets for attackers. By monitoring and alerting on suspicious activities from admin accounts, the organization can quickly identify and respond to potential breaches, thereby reducing dwell time significantly. Suspicious behavior could include unusual login times, access to sensitive data not usually accessed by the admin, or any deviation from normal behavior patterns.
This proactive monitoring is crucial for quick detection and response, aligning well with best practices in incident response.
D: Utilizing allow lists on the WAF for all users using GET methods: This measure is aimed at restricting access based on allowed lists, which can be effective in preventing unauthorized access but doesn't specifically address the need for quick detection and response to internal threats.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of monitoring and alerting on admin activities as part of a robust incident response plan.
* NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide": Highlights best practices for incident response, including the importance of detecting and responding to suspicious activities quickly.
* "Incident Response & Computer Forensics" by Jason T. Luttgens, Matthew Pepe, and Kevin Mandia:
Discusses techniques for reducing dwell time through effective monitoring and alerting mechanisms, particularly focusing on privileged account activities.
By focusing on enabling alerting for suspicious administrator behavior, the security analyst addresses a critical area that can help reduce the time a threat goes undetected, thereby improving the overall security posture of the organization.
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NEW QUESTION # 52
A developer needs to improve the cryptographic strength of a password-storage component in a web application without completely replacing the crypto-module. Which of the following is the most appropriate technique?

• A. Key escrow
• B. Key encryption
• C. Key splitting
• D. Key stretching
• E. Key rotation

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most appropriate technique to improve the cryptographic strength of a password-storage component in a web application without completely replacing the crypto-module is key stretching. Here's why:
* Enhanced Security: Key stretching algorithms, such as PBKDF2, bcrypt, and scrypt, increase the computational effort required to derive the encryption key from the password, making brute-force attacks more difficult and time-consuming.
* Compatibility: Key stretching can be implemented alongside existing cryptographic modules, enhancing their security without the need for a complete overhaul.
* Industry Best Practices: Key stretching is a widely recommended practice for securely storing passwords, as it significantly improves resistance to password-cracking attacks.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines - Authentication and Lifecycle
* Management
* OWASP Password Storage Cheat Sheet

NEW QUESTION # 53
An organization wants to manage specialized endpoints and needs a solution that provides the ability to
* Centrally manage configurations
* Push policies.
* Remotely wipe devices
* Maintain asset inventory
Which of the following should the organization do to best meet these requirements?

• A. Implement a mobile device management solution.
• B. Use a configuration management database
• C. Deploy a software asset manager
• D. Configure contextual policy management

Answer: A

Explanation:
To meet the requirements of centrally managing configurations, pushing policies, remotely wiping devices, and maintaining an asset inventory, the best solution is to implement a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution.
MDM Capabilities:
* Central Management: MDM allows administrators to manage the configurations of all devices from a central console.
* Policy Enforcement: MDM solutions enable the push of security policies and updates to ensure compliance across all managed devices.
* Remote Wipe: In case a device is lost or stolen, MDM provides the capability to remotely wipe the device to protect sensitive data.
* Asset Inventory: MDM maintains an up-to-date inventory of all managed devices, including their configurations and installed applications.
Other options do not provide the same comprehensive capabilities required for managing specialized endpoints.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-124 Revision 1, "Guidelines for Managing the Security of Mobile Devices in the Enterprise"
* "Mobile Device Management Overview," Gartner Research

NEW QUESTION # 54
A security professional is investigating a trend in vulnerability findings for newly deployed cloud systems Given the following output:

Which of the following actions would address the root cause of this issue?

• A. Disabling unused/unneeded ports on all servers
• B. Recompiling the affected programs with the most current patches
• C. Automating the patching system to update base Images
• D. Deploying a WAF with virtual patching upstream of the affected systems

Answer: C

Explanation:
The output shows that multiple systems have outdated or vulnerable software versions (OpenSSL 1.01 and Java 11 runtime). This suggests that the systems are not being patched regularly or effectively.
* A. Automating the patching system to update base images: Automating the patching process ensures that the latest security updates and patches are applied to all systems, including newly deployed ones.
This addresses the root cause by ensuring that base images used for deployment are always up-to-date with the latest security patches.
* B. Recompiling the affected programs with the most current patches: While this can fix the immediate vulnerabilities, it does not address the root cause of the problem, which is the lack of regular updates.
* C. Disabling unused/unneeded ports on all servers: This improves security but does not address the specific issue of outdated software.
* D. Deploying a WAF with virtual patching upstream of the affected systems: This can provide a
* temporary shield but does not resolve the underlying issue of outdated software.
Automating the patching system to update base images ensures that all deployed systems are using the latest, most secure versions of software, addressing the root cause of the vulnerability trend.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-40 Rev. 3, "Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies"
* CIS Controls, "Control 7: Continuous Vulnerability Management"

NEW QUESTION # 55
Audit findings indicate several user endpoints are not utilizing full disk encryption During me remediation process, a compliance analyst reviews the testing details for the endpoints and notes the endpoint device configuration does not support full disk encryption Which of the following is the most likely reason me device must be replaced'

• A. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits and a firmware upgrade is needed
• B. The HSM is outdated and no longer supported by the manufacturer
• C. The HSM does not support sealing storage
• D. The motherboard was not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier.
• E. The vTPM was not properly initialized and is corrupt.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most likely reason the device must be replaced is that the motherboard was not configured with a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) from the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) supplier.
Why TPM is Necessary for Full Disk Encryption:
* Hardware-Based Security: TPM provides a hardware-based mechanism to store encryption keys securely, which is essential for full disk encryption.
* Compatibility: Full disk encryption solutions, such as BitLocker, require TPM to ensure that the encryption keys are securely stored and managed.
* Integrity Checks: TPM enables system integrity checks during boot, ensuring that the device has not been tampered with.
Other options do not directly address the requirement for TPM in supporting full disk encryption:
* A. The HSM is outdated: While HSM (Hardware Security Module) is important for security, it is not typically used for full disk encryption.
* B. The vTPM was not properly initialized: vTPM (virtual TPM) is less common and not typically a reason for requiring hardware replacement.
* C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits: This would require a firmware upgrade, not replacement of the device.
* E. The HSM does not support sealing storage: Sealing storage is relevant but not the primary reason for requiring TPM for full disk encryption.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* "Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Overview," Microsoft Documentation
* "BitLocker Deployment Guide," Microsoft Documentation

NEW QUESTION # 56
A global manufacturing company has an internal application mat is critical to making products This application cannot be updated and must Be available in the production area A security architect is implementing security for the application. Which of the following best describes the action the architect should take-?

• A. Create a separate network for users who need access to the application
• B. Deploy Intrusion detection capabilities using a network tap
• C. Create an acceptable use policy for the use of the application
• D. Disallow wireless access to the application.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Creating a separate network for users who need access to the application is the best action to secure an internal application that is critical to the production area and cannot be updated.
Why Separate Network?
* Network Segmentation: Isolates the critical application from the rest of the network, reducing the risk of compromise and limiting the potential impact of any security incidents.
* Controlled Access: Ensures that only authorized users have access to the application, enhancing security and reducing the attack surface.
* Minimized Risk: Segmentation helps in protecting the application from vulnerabilities that could be exploited from other parts of the network.
Other options, while beneficial, do not provide the same level of security for a critical application:
* A. Disallow wireless access: Useful but does not provide comprehensive protection.
* B. Deploy intrusion detection capabilities using a network tap: Enhances monitoring but does not provide the same level of isolation and control.
* C. Create an acceptable use policy: Important for governance but does not provide technical security controls.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-125, "Guide to Security for Full Virtualization Technologies"
* "Network Segmentation Best Practices," Cisco Documentation

NEW QUESTION # 57
A security analyst is reviewing the following log:

Which of the following possible events should the security analyst investigate further?

• A. A macro that was prevented from running
• B. A PDF that exposed sensitive information improperly
• C. A text file containing passwords that were leaked
• D. A malicious file that was run in this environment

Answer: C

Explanation:
Based on the log provided, the most concerning event that should be investigated further is the presence of a text file containing passwords that were leaked. Here's why:
* Sensitive Information Exposure: A text file containing passwords represents a significant security risk, as it indicates that sensitive credentials have been exposed in plain text, potentially leading to unauthorized access.
* Immediate Threat: Password leaks can lead to immediate exploitation by attackers, compromising user accounts and sensitive data. This requires urgent investi

NEW QUESTION # 58
A security configure is building a solution to disable weak CBC configuration for remote access connections lo Linux systems. Which of the following should the security engineer modify?

• A. The /etc/openssl.conf file, updating the virtual site parameter
• B. The /etc/nsswith.conf file, updating the name server
• C. The /etc/hosts file, updating the IP parameter
• D. The /etc/etc/sshd, configure file updating the ciphers

Answer: D

Explanation:
The sshd_config file is the main configuration file for the OpenSSH server. To disable weak CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) ciphers for SSH connections, the security engineer should modify the sshd_config file to update the list of allowed ciphers. This file typically contains settings for the SSH daemon, including which encryption algorithms are allowed.
By editing the /etc/ssh/sshd_config file and updating the Ciphers directive, weak ciphers can be removed, and only strong ciphers can be allowed. This change ensures that the SSH server does not use insecure encryption methods.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* OpenSSH manual pages (man sshd_config)
* CIS Benchmarks for Linux

NEW QUESTION # 59
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