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ISACA Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following mobile computing trends should cause the GREATEST concern for an organization that needs to protect sensitive organizational data?
- A. Fluctuating size of form factors for mobile devices
- B. Increasing amount of storage space available on mobile devices
- C. Expanding availability of mobile network coverage
- D. Growing consumer demand for advanced mobile technologies
Answer: B
Explanation:
The increasing amount of storage space available on mobile devices poses the greatest concern for organizations needing to protect sensitive data. Larger storage capacities allow for more data to be stored on a device, which can include sensitive organizational information. If such a device is lost, stolen, or compromised, the potential for sensitive data to be accessed increases significantly. Additionally, the more data a device can hold, the more attractive it becomes as a target for attackers.
Reference = ISACA's resources highlight the risks associated with mobile devices' storage capabilities, especially when they contain sensitive organizational data. The threats, vulnerabilities, and risks related to the storage of sensitive data on mobile devices are discussed, emphasizing the importance of protecting such data from unauthorized access123.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following is MOST likely to result in unidentified cybersecurity risks?
- A. Failure to identify and formalize roles and responsibilities for cybersecurity
- B. Lack of protocols for disclosure of serious cybersecurity breaches to authorities
- C. Failure to establish adequate recovery processes for cybersecurity events
- D. Lack of cybersecurity procedures and guidelines
Answer: A
Explanation:
When roles and responsibilities for cybersecurity are not clearly identified and formalized, it can lead to confusion and gaps in the cybersecurity posture of an organization. Without clear accountability, certain risks may not be identified, managed, or mitigated effectively, leading to potential vulnerabilities that could be exploited.
Reference = The importance of defining roles and responsibilities is highlighted in various cybersecurity frameworks and best practices, including those recommended by ISACA. It is a common theme in cybersecurity governance to ensure that all individuals within an organization understand their role in maintaining cybersecurity1.
NEW QUESTION # 17
Which type of tools look for anomalies in user behavior?
- A. Audit reduction tools
- B. Rootkit detection tools
- C. Attack-signature-detection tools
- D. Trend/variance-detection tools
Answer: D
Explanation:
Trend/variance-detection tools are tools that look for anomalies in user behavior. These tools use statistical methods to establish a baseline of normal user activity and then compare it with current or historical data to identify deviations or outliers. These tools can help to detect unauthorized access, fraud, insider threats, or other malicious activities.
NEW QUESTION # 18
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?
- A. Risk-based shakeout
- B. Hands-on testing
- C. Inventory and discovery
- D. Evaluation of implementation details
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets, systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing (B), or risk-based shakeout C.
NEW QUESTION # 19
In cloud computing, which type of hosting is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment?
- A. Shared hosting
- B. Hybrid hosting
- C. Private hosting
- D. Public hosting
Answer: C
Explanation:
In cloud computing, the type of hosting that is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment is private hosting. Private hosting is a type of cloud service model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and hosted either on-premise or off-premise by a third-party provider. Private hosting offers more control over the security, performance, customization, and compliance of the cloud environment than other types of hosting.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following is the GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Sen/ices to evaluate a cloud service provider?
- A. Omission of confidentiality in the criteria
- B. Incompatibility with cloud service business model
- C. Lack of specificity m the principles
- D. Inability to issue SOC 2 or SOC 3 reports
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider is the lack of specificity in the principles. This is because the AICPA/CICA Trust Services are a set of principles and criteria that provide guidance for evaluating and reporting on controls over information systems and services. However, the principles and criteria are very broad and generic, and do not address the specific risks and challenges that are associated with cloud services, such as data sovereignty, multi-tenancy, portability, etc. The other options are not drawbacks when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, but rather different aspects or benefits of using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, such as compatibility (A), confidentiality C, or reporting (D).
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective technique for implementing network security for human resources (HR) desktops and internal laptop users in an organization?
- A. Virtual local area network
- B. Fortified demilitarized zone
- C. Software defined perimeter
- D. Layer 3 virtual private network
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST cost-effective technique for implementing network security for human resources (HR) desktops and internal laptop users in an organization is using a virtual local area network (VLAN). A VLAN is a logical grouping of network devices that share the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical location or connection. A VLAN can enhance network security by isolating different types of traffic or users from each other and applying different security policies or rules based on the VLAN membership. For example, an organization can create a VLAN for HR desktops and internal laptop users that restricts their access to only HR-related systems or resources. A VLAN can also reduce network costs by saving bandwidth, improving performance, and simplifying management.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in which of the following states?
- A. At rest, in transit and in use
- B. Data sent, data received, and data deleted
- C. Operating system application and database levels
- D. Public restricted, and confidential
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in all states: at rest, in transit and in use.
This is because DLP solutions are technologies or tools that help to prevent unauthorized or accidental disclosure, modification, or deletion of sensitive or confidential information by users or applications. DLP solutions help to protect information in all states, by applying different types of controls or mechanisms depending on the state of the information. For example, DLP solutions can protect information at rest by encrypting or masking the data stored on devices or media; protect information in transit by inspecting or filtering the data transmitted over networks or channels; and protect information in use by restricting or monitoring the access or usage of the data by users or applications. The other options are not states that strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in, but rather different levels (B), classifications C, or actions (D) that are related to information security.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in which of the following areas?
- A. Cybersecurity risk scenarios
- B. Cybersecurity operations management
- C. Cybercrime, hacktism. and espionage
- D. Industry-specific security regulator
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in the areas of cybercrime, hacktivism, and espionage. These are the main sources of malicious cyber activities that pose risks to organizations and individuals. Cyber threat intelligence helps to understand the motivations, capabilities, tactics, techniques, and procedures of various threat actors and groups.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following devices is at GREATEST risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval?
- A. Printing devices
- B. Mobile devices
- C. Desktop workstation
- D. Cloud storage devices
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The device that is at GREATEST risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval is mobile devices. This is because mobile devices are devices that are portable, wireless, and connected to the Internet or other networks, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc. Mobile devices are at greatest risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval, because they can be easily lost, stolen, or compromised by attackers who can access or extract the data stored or transmitted on the devices. Mobile devices can also be subject to activity monitoring and data retrieval by third-party applications or services that may collect or share the user's personal or sensitive information without their consent or knowledge. The other options are not devices that are at greatest risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval, but rather different types of devices that may have different levels of risk or protection from activity monitoring and data retrieval, such as cloud storage devices (B), desktop workstations C, or printing devices (D).
NEW QUESTION # 25
When reviewing user management roles, which of the following groups presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions?
- A. Database administrators
- B. Terminated employees
- C. Privileged users
- D. Contractors
Answer: C
Explanation:
When reviewing user management roles, the group that presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions is privileged users. This is because privileged users are users who have elevated or special access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as administrators, superusers, root users, etc. Privileged users present the greatest risk based on their permissions, because they can perform actions or operations that can affect the security, availability, or functionality of systems or resources, such as installing or uninstalling software, modifying or deleting files, granting or revoking access rights, etc. Privileged users can also abuse or misuse their permissions for malicious or unauthorized purposes, such as stealing or leaking sensitive data, sabotaging systems or services, bypassing security controls, etc. The other options are not groups that present the greatest risk based on their permissions, but rather different types of users that may have different levels of access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as database administrators (B), terminated employees C, or contractors (D).
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode?
- A. A user's behavior pattern can be predicted.
- B. Authorization tokens could be exploited.
- C. An adversary can predict a user's login credentials.
- D. Mobile connectivity could be severely weakened.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode is that authorization tokens could be exploited. Authorization tokens are pieces of data that are used to authenticate users and grant them access to certain resources or services. Authorization tokens are often stored on mobile devices to enable seamless and convenient access without requiring users to enter their credentials repeatedly. However, if users set their mobile devices to "always on" mode, they increase the risk of losing their devices or having them stolen by attackers. Attackers can then access the authorization tokens stored on the devices and use them to impersonate the users or access their sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of using a virtual private network (VPN) over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers?
- A. It is more cost effective.
- B. It is more secure
- C. It is more reliable
- D. It is higher speed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The GREATEST advantage of using a virtual private network (VPN) over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers is that it is more cost effective. This is because a VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection between a client and a server over an existing public network, such as the Internet. A VPN reduces the cost of establishing and maintaining a secure communication channel, as it does not require any additional hardware, software, or infrastructure, unlike dedicated circuits and dial-in servers, which require dedicated lines, modems, routers, switches, etc. The other options are not the greatest advantage of using a VPN over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers, because they either involve security (A), reliability (B), or speed C aspects that may not be significantly different or better than dedicated circuits and dial-in servers.
NEW QUESTION # 28
in key protection/management, access should be aligned with which of the following?
- A. System limitation
- B. Least privilege
- C. Position responsibilities
- D. Role descriptions
Answer: B
Explanation:
In key protection/management, access should be aligned with the principle of least privilege. This means that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks and no more. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or compromise of sensitive data or systems.
NEW QUESTION # 29
At which layer in the open systems interconnection (OSI) model does SSH operate?
- A. Application
- B. Presentation
- C. Network
- D. Session
Answer: A
Explanation:
SSH, or Secure Shell, is a network protocol that operates at the Application layer of the OSI model. This is the topmost layer, which allows users to interact with the network through applications. SSH provides a secure channel over an unsecured network in a client-server architecture, enabling users to log into another computer over a network, to execute commands in a remote machine, and to move files from one machine to another.
NEW QUESTION # 30
The "recover" function of the NISI cybersecurity framework is concerned with:
- A. planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service.
- B. identifying critical data to be recovered m case of a security incident.
- C. taking appropriate action to contain and eradicate a security incident.
- D. allocating costs incurred as part of the implementation of cybersecurity measures.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The "recover" function of the NIST cybersecurity framework is concerned with planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service. This is because the recover function helps organizations to restore normal operations as quickly as possible after a cybersecurity incident, while also learning from the incident and improving their security posture. The other options are not part of the recover function, but rather belong to the identify (B), respond C, or protect (D) functions.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following describes specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy?
- A. Standards
- B. Guidelines
- C. Basedine
- D. Frameworks
Answer: A
Explanation:
Specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy are known as standards. This is because standards define the minimum level of performance or behavior that is expected from an organization or its employees in order to achieve a policy objective or requirement. Standards also provide clear and measurable criteria for auditing and monitoring compliance with policies. The other options are not specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as frameworks (A), guidelines (B), or baselines C.
NEW QUESTION # 32
A cloud service provider is used to perform analytics on an organization's sensitive data. A data leakage incident occurs in the service providers network from a regulatory perspective, who is responsible for the data breach?
- A. The service provider
- B. Dependent upon the nature of breath
- C. Dependent upon specific regulatory requirements
- D. The organization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A cloud service provider is used to perform analytics on an organization's sensitive data. A data leakage incident occurs in the service provider's network. From a regulatory perspective, the organization is responsible for the data breach. This is because the organization is the data owner and has the ultimate accountability and liability for the security and privacy of its data, regardless of where it is stored or processed.
The organization cannot transfer or delegate its responsibility to the service provider, even if there is a contractual agreement or service level agreement that specifies the security obligations of the service provider.
The other options are not correct, because they either imply that the service provider is responsible (A), or that the responsibility depends on the nature of breach (B) or specific regulatory requirements C, which are not relevant factors.
NEW QUESTION # 33
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with:
- A. risk aggregation.
- B. risk prioritization.
- C. risk quantification
- D. risk elimination.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with risk prioritization. This is because a common vulnerability scoring system provides a standardized and consistent way of measuring and comparing the severity of vulnerabilities, based on their impact and exploitability. This allows organizations to prioritize the remediation of the most critical vulnerabilities and allocate resources accordingly. The other options are not as advantageous as using a common vulnerability scoring system, because they either involve aggregating (A), eliminating C, or quantifying (D) risk, which are not directly related to the scoring system.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively?
- A. Remediation efforts are communicated to management
- B. The vulnerability program is formally approved
- C. Remediation efforts are prioritized.
- D. The vulnerability program is reviewed annually.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively is that remediation efforts are prioritized. This is because prioritizing remediation efforts helps to ensure that the most critical and urgent vulnerabilities are addressed first, based on their severity, impact, and exploitability.
Prioritizing remediation efforts also helps to optimize the use of resources and time for mitigating vulnerabilities and reducing risks. The other options are not as indicative of an effective vulnerability management process, because they either involve communicating (A), approving (B), or reviewing C aspects that are not directly related to remediating vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when defining actions to be taken in the event an intrusion is detected as part of an intrusion detection system (IDS) policy?
- A. Origin of intrusion and attack methods
- B. Resources available for the IT security team
- C. Level of management involvement
- D. Level of risk to the organization's data
Answer: D
Explanation:
When defining actions for an IDS policy, the most important consideration is the level of risk to the organization's data. This involves assessing the potential impact of the intrusion on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data, which guides the prioritization and response efforts.
Reference = ISACA's guidance on cybersecurity incident response highlights the importance of understanding the risk to data as a key factor in shaping the response to intrusions. This includes evaluating the severity of the threat and the sensitivity of the affected data to determine the appropriate actions123.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following is the BEST method of maintaining the confidentiality of digital information?
- A. Use of logging digital signatures, and write protection
- B. Use of access controls, file permissions, and encryption
- C. Use of the awareness tracing programs and related end-user testing
- D. Use of backups and business continuity planning
Answer: B
Explanation:
The BEST method of maintaining the confidentiality of digital information is using access controls, file permissions, and encryption. This is because these techniques help to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification of digital information, by restricting who can access the information, what they can do with it, and how they can access it. The other options are not as effective as using access controls, file permissions, and encryption, because they either relate to protecting availability (B), integrity C, or awareness (D).
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following is used to help identify the most appropriate controls to meet an organization's specific security requirements?
- A. Maturity model
- B. Risk assessment
- C. Contingency planning
- D. Security assessment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk assessment is a fundamental part of the cybersecurity framework and is used to identify, estimate, and prioritize risks to organizational operations, assets, individuals, other organizations, and the Nation, resulting from the operation and use of information systems. A risk assessment helps in understanding the potential impact of different security threats and the effectiveness of the controls in place, thereby guiding the selection of appropriate controls to reduce risk to an acceptable level.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following is an objective of public key infrastructure (PKI)?
- A. Securely distributing secret keys to the communicating parties
- B. Independently authenticating the validity of the sender's public key
- C. Approving the algorithm to be used during data transmission
- D. Creating the private-public key pair for secure communications
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An objective of public key infrastructure (PKI) is to independently authenticate the validity of the sender's public key. PKI is a system that uses cryptographic keys to secure communications and transactions. PKI involves a trusted third party called a certificate authority (CA) that issues digital certificates that link a public key with an identity. The recipient can use the CA's public key to verify the sender's certificate and public key.
NEW QUESTION # 39
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