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Best Quality ISACA CISM Exam Questions
Significant Tidbits about CISM Test
Firstly, this exam precisely measures your technical knowledge as you prepare to take on a managerial role. Since this is a step up from being a team player, you need to have the expertise in the four domains mentioned above. Before you face the responsibilities of becoming an ISACA certified specialist in the workplace, though, you must first deal with the pressure of finishing the 150 exam questions in 4 hours. In the global scene, there are more than 46,000 holders of this renowned certification so, with the right attitude and preparation, you can be the next in line for professional success.
Who Is the Target Audience?
Now that you have an idea of the key topics of CISM, it's also relevant to know the main audience of the certification. First and foremost, it is created for individuals who have managerial roles. Their position allows them to design, supervise, and calculate the information security features of the organization. In addition, these professionals must have a minimum of 5 years of industry experience in managing information security. Isaca may allow a waiver of the number of working years for up to 2 years.
NEW QUESTION # 507
An organization's main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS).
The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider.
Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?
- A. The data owner
- B. The information security manager
- C. The application owner
- D. The security engineer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
= The application owner is primarily accountable for the associated task because they are responsible for ensuring that the application meets the business requirements and objectives, as well as the security and compliance standards. The application owner is also the one who defines the roles and responsibilities of the application team, including the security engineer, and oversees the development, testing, deployment, and maintenance of the application. The application owner should work with the cloud provider to address the security vulnerability and mitigate the risk. The information security manager, the data owner, and the security engineer are not primarily accountable for the associated task, although they may have some roles and responsibilities in supporting the application owner. The information security manager is responsible for establishing and maintaining the information security program and aligning it with the business objectives and strategy. The data owner is responsible for defining the classification, usage, and protection requirements of the data. The security engineer is responsible for implementing and testing the security controls and features of the application. References = CISM Review Manual 2023, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2, page 18; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription, Question ID: 115.
NEW QUESTION # 508
When configuring a biometric access control system that protects a high-security data center, the system's sensitivity level should be set:
- A. to u higher false reject rate (FRR).
- B. exactly to the crossover error rate.
- C. to a lower crossover error rate.
- D. to a higher false acceptance rate (FAR).
Answer: A
Explanation:
Biometric access control systems are not infallible. When tuning the solution, one has to adjust the sensitivity level to give preference either to false reject rate (type I error rate) where the system will be more prone to err denying access to a valid user or erring and allowing access to an invalid user. As the sensitivity of the biometric system is adjusted, these values change inversely. At one point, the two values intersect and are equal. This condition creates the crossover error rate, which is a measure of the system accuracy. In systems where the possibility of false rejects is a problem, it may be necessary' to reduce sensitivity and thereby increase the number of false accepts. This is sometimes referred to as equal error rate (EER). In a very sensitive system, it may be desirable to minimize the number of false accepts-the number of unauthorized persons allowed access. To do this, the system is tuned to be more sensitive, which causes the false rejects the number of authorized persons disallowed access to increase.
NEW QUESTION # 509
Which of the following will BEST prevent an employee from using a USB drive to copy files from desktop computers?
- A. Conduct frequent awareness training with noncompliance penalties
- B. Restrict the available drive allocation on all PCs
- C. Disable universal serial bus (USB) ports on all desktop devices
- D. Establish strict access controls to sensitive information
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Restricting the ability of a PC to allocate new drive letters ensures that universal serial bus (USB) drives or even CD-writers cannot be attached as they would not be recognized by the operating system. Disabling USB ports on all machines is not practical since mice and other peripherals depend on these connections.
Awareness training and sanctions do not prevent copying of information nor do access controls.
NEW QUESTION # 510
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when deciding whether to continue outsourcing to a managed security service provider?
- A. The business need for the function
- B. The vendor's reputation m the industry
- C. The cost of the services
- D. The ability to meet deliverables
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 511
Which if the following would be the MOST important information to include in a business case for an information security project in a highly regulated industry?
- A. Critical audit findings
- B. Number of reported security incidents
- C. Industry comparison analysis
- D. Compliance risk assessment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 512
Which of the following is the BEST defense against a brute force attack?
- A. Mandatory access control
- B. Intruder detection lockout
- C. Time-of-day restrictions
- D. Discretionary access control
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 513
Which of the following would BEST demonstrate the status of an organization's information security program to the board of directors?
- A. Changes to information security risks
- B. Results of a recent external audit
- C. The information security operations matrix
- D. Information security program metrics
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 514
A business unit uses e-commerce with a strong password policy. Many customers complain that they cannot remember their password because they are too long and complex. The business unit states it is imperative to improve the customer experience. The information security manager should FIRST.
- A. Evaluate the impact of the customer's experience on business revenue.
- B. Reach alternative secure of identify verification
- C. Change the password policy to improve the customer experience
- D. Recommended implementing two-factor authentication.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 515
The PRIMARY benefit of integrating information security activities into change management processes is to:
- A. protect the business from collusion and compliance threats.
- B. protect the organization from unauthorized changes.
- C. ensure required controls are Included in changes.
- D. provide greater accountability for security-related changes In the business
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 516
Which of the following factors is a PRIMARY driver for information security governance that does not require any further justification?
- A. Alignment with industry best practices
- B. Regulatory compliance
- C. Business benefits
- D. Business continuity investment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY GOVERNANCE
Explanation:
Regulatory compliance can be a standalone driver for an information security governance measure. No further analysis nor justification is required since the entity has no choice in the regulatory requirements.
Buy-in from business managers must be obtained by the information security manager when an information security governance measure is sought based on its alignment with industry best practices. Business continuity investment needs to be justified by business impact analysis. When an information security governance measure is sought based on qualitative business benefits, further analysis is required to determine whether the benefits outweigh the cost of the information security governance measure in question.
NEW QUESTION # 517
The return on investment of information security can BEST be evaluated through which of the following?
- A. Support of business objectives
- B. Security metrics
- C. Process improvement models
- D. Security deliverables
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
Explanation:
One way to determine the return on security investment is to illustrate how information security supports the achievement of business objectives. Security metrics measure improvement and effectiveness within the security practice but do not tie to business objectives. Similarly, listing deliverables and creating process improvement models does not necessarily tie into business objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 518
Which of the following is MOST important in increasing the effectiveness of incident responders?
- A. Testing response scenarios
- B. Communicating with the management team
- C. Reviewing the incident response plan annually
- D. Integrating staff with the IT department
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 519
The PRIMARY purpose of involving third-party teams for carrying out post event reviews of information security incidents is to:
- A. obtain support for enhancing the expertise of the third-party teams.
- B. obtain better buy-in for the information security program.
- C. enable independent and objective review of the root cause of the incidents.
- D. identify lessons learned for further improving the information security management process.
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is always desirable to avoid the conflict of interest involved in having the information security team carries out the post event review. Obtaining support for enhancing the expertise of the third-party teams is one of the advantages, but is not the primary driver. Identifying lessons learned for further improving the information security management process is the general purpose of carrying out the post event review. Obtaining better buy-in for the information security program is not a valid reason for involving third-party teams.
NEW QUESTION # 520
Which of the following technologies is utilized to ensure that an individual connecting to a corporate internal network over the Internet is not an intruder masquerading as an authorized user?
- A. IP address packet filtering
- B. Two-factor authentication
- C. Embedded digital signature
- D. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM DEVELOPMENT
Explanation:
Two-factor authentication provides an additional security mechanism over and above that provided by passwords alone. This is frequently used by mobile users needing to establish connectivity to a corporate network. IP address packet filtering would protect against spoofing an internal address but would not provide strong authentication. An intrusion detection system (IDS) can be used to detect an external attack but would not help in authenticating a user attempting to connect. Digital signatures ensure that transmitted information can be attributed to the named sender.
NEW QUESTION # 521
After logging in to a web application, additional authentication is required at various application points. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for such an approach?
- A. To meet single sign-on authentication standards
- B. To support strong two-factor authentication protocols
- C. To implement a challenge response test
- D. To ensure access rights meet classification requirements
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 522
What is the BEST way for a customer to authenticate an e-commerce vendor?
- A. Use a secure communications protocol for the connection.
- B. Request email verification of the order
- C. Encrypt the order using the vendor s private key
- D. Verify the vendor's certificate with a certificate authority.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 523
The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:
- A. can see the overall impact to the business.
- B. are more objective than information security management.
- C. can balance the technical and business risks.
- D. have a better understanding of specific business needs.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 524
Which of the following is the BEST approach to reduce unnecessary duplication of compliance activities?
- A. Integration of assurance efforts
- B. Automation of controls
- C. Standardization of compliance requirements
- D. Documentation of control procedures
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
= Standardization of compliance requirements is the best approach to reduce unnecessary duplication of compliance activities, as it allows for a common understanding of the objectives and expectations of various stakeholders, such as regulators, auditors, customers, and business partners. Standardization also facilitates the alignment of compliance activities with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, and enables the identification and elimination of redundant or conflicting controls. References = CISM Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 721; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 12th Edition, question 952 Learn more:
NEW QUESTION # 525
Which of the following is the MOST effective at preventing an unauthorized individual from following an authorized person through a secured entrance (tailgating or piggybacking)?
- A. Awareness training
- B. Biometric scanners
- C. Card-key door locks
- D. Photo identification
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Awareness training would most likely result in any attempted tailgating being challenged by the authorized employee. The other choices are physical controls which by themselves would not be effective against tailgating.
NEW QUESTION # 526
Which of the following BEST indicates that an information security governance framework has been successfully implemented?
- A. The framework aligns security processes with industry best practices.
- B. The framework includes commercial off-the-shelf security solutions.
- C. The framework aligns management and other functions within the security organization.
- D. The framework aligns internal and external resources.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The best indicator that an information security governance framework has been successfully implemented is A: The framework aligns internal and external resources. This is because the framework should ensure that the information security strategy, policies, and objectives are aligned with the business goals, stakeholder expectations, and regulatory requirements. The framework should also enable the effective allocation and coordination of internal and external resources, such as people, processes, technology, and finances, to support the information security program and its activities.
The framework should ensure that the information security strategy, policies, and objectives are aligned with the business goals, stakeholder expectations, and regulatory requirements. The framework should also enable the effective allocation and coordination of internal and external resources, such as people, processes, technology, and finances, to support the information security program and its activities. (From CISM Manual or related resources) References = CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 181; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 9th Edition, Question 49, page 14
NEW QUESTION # 527
When responding to a security incident, information security management and the affected business unit management cannot agree whether to escalate the incident to senior management.
Which of the following would MOST effectively prevent this situation from recurring?
- A. Obtain senior management buy-in for incident response processes.
- B. Create a clear definition of incident classifications.
- C. Periodically test the incident response plan.
- D. Develop additional communication channels.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 528
Which of the following BEST provides an information security manager with sufficient assurance that a service provider complies with the organization's information security requirements?
- A. Alive demonstration of the third-party supplier's security capabilities
- B. The ability to i third-party supplier's IT systems and processes
- C. An independent review report indicating compliance with industry standards
- D. Third-party security control self-assessment (CSA) results
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A service provider is a third-party supplier that provides IT services or products to an organization. A service provider should comply with the organization's information security requirements, such as policies, standards, procedures, and controls, to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization's data and systems. The best way to provide an information security manager with sufficient assurance that a service provider complies with the organization's information security requirements is to have the ability to audit the third-party supplier's IT systems and processes. An audit is a systematic and independent examination of evidence to determine the degree of conformity to predetermined criteria. An audit can verify the effectiveness and efficiency of the service provider's security controls, identify any gaps or weaknesses, and provide recommendations for improvement. An audit can also ensure that the service provider adheres to the contractual obligations and service level agreements (SLAs) with the organization. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate answer.
Option A is not the best answer because a live demonstration of the third-party supplier's security capabilities may not be comprehensive, objective, or reliable. A live demonstration may only show the positive aspects of the service provider's security, but not reveal any hidden or potential issues. A live demonstration may also be subject to manipulation or deception by the service provider.
Option C is not the best answer because third-party security control self-assessment (CSA) results may not be accurate, complete, or consistent. A self-assessment is a process where the service provider evaluates its own security controls against a set of criteria or standards. A self-assessment may be biased, subjective, or incomplete, as the service provider may not disclose or report all the relevant information or issues. A self-assessment may also vary in quality and scope depending on the service provider's expertise, resources, and methodology.
Option D is not the best answer because an independent review report indicating compliance with industry standards may not be sufficient or specific for the organization's information security requirements. An independent review is a process where an external party evaluates the service provider's security controls against a set of industry standards or best practices, such as ISO/IEC 27001, NIST CSF, PCI DSS, etc. An independent review report may provide a general overview of the service provider's security posture, but not address the organization's unique or specific security needs, risks, or expectations. An independent review report may also be outdated, limited, or generic, as the industry standards or best practices may not reflect the current or emerging security threats or trends. References = CISM Review Manual 15th Edition1, pages
257-258; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription, QID 301.
An independent review report indicating compliance with industry standards BEST provides an information security manager with sufficient assurance that a service provider complies with the organization's information security requirements. This is because an independent review report is an objective and reliable source of evidence that the service provider has implemented and maintained effective security controls that meet the industry standards and best practices. An independent review report can also provide assurance that the service provider has addressed any gaps or weaknesses identified in previous audits or assessments.
NEW QUESTION # 529
Which of the following is the MOST relevant metric to include in an information security quarterly report to the executive committee?
- A. Security compliant servers trend report
- B. Security patches applied trend report
- C. Percentage of security compliant servers
- D. Number of security patches applied
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM DEVELOPMENT
Explanation:
The percentage of compliant servers will be a relevant indicator of the risk exposure of the infrastructure.
However, the percentage is less relevant than the overall trend, which would provide a measurement of the efficiency of the IT security program. The number of patches applied would be less relevant, as this would depend on the number of vulnerabilities identified and patches provided by vendors.
NEW QUESTION # 530
To help ensure that an information security training program is MOST effective, its contents should be:
- A. based on recent incidents.
- B. aligned to business processes.
- C. focused on information security policy.
- D. based on employees' roles.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To help ensure that an information security training program is MOST effective, its contents should be based on employees' roles. This is because different roles have different responsibilities and access levels to information and systems, and therefore face different types of threats and risks. By tailoring the training content to the specific needs and expectations of each role, the training program can increase the relevance and retention of the information security knowledge and skills for the employees. Role-based training can also help employees understand their accountability and obligations for protecting information assets in their daily tasks
NEW QUESTION # 531
Which of the following would be the MOST important factor to be considered in the loss of mobile equipment with unencrypted data?
- A. Sufficient coverage of the insurance policy for accidental losses
- B. Disclosure of personal information
- C. Intrinsic value of the data stored on the equipment
- D. Replacement cost of the equipment
Answer: C
Explanation:
When mobile equipment is lost or stolen, the information contained on the equipment matters most in determining the impact of the loss. The more sensitive the information, the greater the liability. If staff carries mobile equipment for business purposes, an organization must develop a clear policy as to what information should be kept on the equipment and for what purpose. Personal information is not defined in the question as the data that were lost. Insurance may be a relatively smaller issue as compared with information theft or opportunity loss, although insurance is also an important factor for a successful business. Cost of equipment would be a less important issue as compared with other choices.
NEW QUESTION # 532
......
What Are the Primary Sections Featured in the Isaca CISM Exam?
Adding this certification into your profile verifies that you have a broad set of skills that you can apply for solving different issues in the workplace. And these are covered in the domains of the the CISM exam. Let's go into these one by one.
- Information risk management
CISM ensures that you get the right skills essential for risk management. Mastering the tools and techniques related to this particular process helps you easily distinguish, evaluate, and control possible threats that may affect the business' operations and financial flow. Another thing that makes this area more challenging is the extensive sources of threats, which may include management errors, legal liabilities, and even natural disasters. As a result, it's important to know the entire risk management frameworks, along with related functionalities such as security control selection, risk visibility, reporting, and actions.
- Information security incident management
Now, we're down to the last part of the exam and that is IS incident management. This domain requires candidates to know critical information about incident management as a whole. From there, it underscores one's skills in dealing with incident metrics, indicators, response methodologies, response plans, and management resources. Other areas that need your attention are business continuity, disaster recovery procedures, and post-incident activities. Being able to expound on the present situation of incident response is substantial too.
- Information security governance
Information security governance, in general, is the way you utilize and lead the company's methodology to security. Proper handling of this crucial aspect greatly affects the core security activities of the business. In addition, it allows a smooth-sailing flow of security details within the organization. Aside from aligning the security with the key objectives, it's also significant to have a profound comprehension of the structural processes, security roles, and control frameworks.
- Information security program development and management
For the third section, it's all about program development and administration. At this point, one becomes more competent in the scope of an information security program as well as the entire management framework. Additionally, there will be a comprehensive elaboration of the list of operational and administrative activities, together with typical program challenges, controls, and countermeasures. The general security infrastructure and architecture are also vital topics.
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