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NEW QUESTION # 34
A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option?
- A. Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet
- B. Purchase and deploy an incident management tool
- C. Document incidents on a large board in the lab
- D. Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls
Answer: A
Explanation:
An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident management tool is a software tool that supports recording and tracking incidents throughout their life cycle. A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. The best option for this case is to manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet. This option has several advantages over other options:
It is low cost, as it does not require purchasing any additional software or hardware.
It is easy to implement within a week, as it does not require installing or configuring any complex software or hardware.
It is accessible and transparent, as it can be viewed and updated by anyone who has access to the intranet.
It is structured and organized, as it can store and display various information about incidents, such as identifier, summary, description, severity, priority, status, resolution, etc. The other options are not suitable for this case, as they have several disadvantages over the chosen option:
Documenting incidents on a large board in the lab is not a good option, as it is not accessible or transparent to anyone who is not physically present in the lab. It is also not structured or organized, as it may not store or display all the necessary information about incidents.
Purchasing and deploying an incident management tool is not a good option, as it is not low cost or easy to implement within a week. It may require spending a significant amount of money and time on acquiring, installing and configuring the software or hardware.
Managing the incidents through emails and phone calls is not a good option, as it is not structured or organized. It may lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information about incidents. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 32-33.
NEW QUESTION # 35
How can testing contribute to higher quality?
- A. Testing ensures that remaining defects are documented.
- B. Testing help to measure the quality of software.
- C. Testing eliminates the risk with software.
- D. Testing removes errors in the software.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Testing can contribute to higher quality by helping to measure the quality of software. Quality is defined as the degree to which a component or system satisfies specified requirements and customer or user needs and expectations. Testing is a process of evaluating a component or system by applying inputs and observing outputs, and comparing them with expected results. Testing can help to measure the quality of software by providing information on its functionality, performance, usability, security, reliability, etc. Testing can also help to identify and report defects in software, which can lead to improvement actions and quality assurance activities. The other options are not accurate descriptions of how testing can contribute to higher quality. Testing does not ensure that remaining defects are documented, but rather that detected defects are reported. Testing does not remove errors in software, but rather finds defects in software behavior or quality. Testing does not eliminate the risk with software, but rather assesses and manages the risk with software. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 3.
NEW QUESTION # 36
During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. Which of the following is the next step the tester should take poor to recording the deviation?
- A. Try to recreate the incident before reporting
- B. Report the incident as is without any further action
- C. Send an email to the developer and not report the bug
- D. Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem
Answer: A
Explanation:
An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident report is a document that records the details of an incident. The next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation is to try to recreate the incident before reporting. This can help confirm that the incident is reproducible and not caused by a random or external factor. This can also help gather more information about the incident, such as the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, the severity and priority of the incident, or any screenshots or logs that can illustrate the incident. Trying to identify the code fragment causing the problem is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is a debugging activity that is usually performed by developers after receiving the incident report. Sending an email to the developer and not reporting the bug is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is an informal and unstructured way of communicating incidents that can lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information. Reporting the incident as is without any further action is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this can result in incomplete or inaccurate incident reports that can hamper the investigation and resolution of incidents. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 32-33.
NEW QUESTION # 37
A software calculates the annual car tax using three inputs:
- E; the emission level of the vehicle
- P: the power of the vehicle
-T the type of the vehicle
The input value for P can be integer positive values between 15 and 350.
Which of the following answers contains a correct list of a boundary values for the P input?
- A. 14,15,350,351
- B. 15,350
- C. 14,351
- D. 5.175.500
Answer: A
Explanation:
A correct list of boundary values for the P input should include the minimum and maximum values of the valid range (15 and 350), as well as the values just below and above the boundaries (14 and 351). Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that involves testing the values at or near the boundaries of an input domain or output range, as these values are more likely to cause errors than values in the middle. Option B satisfies this condition, as it has all four boundary values (14, 15, 350, 351). Option A has only two boundary values (14 and 351), option C has only two boundary values (15 and 350), and option D has no boundary values at all. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 34.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?
- A. To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.
- B. To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.
- C. To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.
- D. To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk management is a process that identifies, analyzes, evaluates and mitigates risks in a software project. Risks are factors that may negatively affect the quality, schedule, budget or scope of a software project. The main goals of risk management in a software project are to reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact. This can be achieved by applying various strategies, such as avoidance, transfer, reduction or acceptance. Risk management does not aim to increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs, as this may not be feasible or realistic. Risk management does not aim to increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers, as these are secondary or indirect outcomes. Risk management does not aim to control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies, as these are specific types of risks that may not apply to all projects. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 14-15.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Why should you choose a test technique?
- A. Because of the time constraints that usually accompany a test project
- B. Because choosing a test technique is a common practice in software testing
- C. Because this way you cover the full scope of the product's functionality
- D. Because you need to match the way you test to the content of the product under test
Answer: D
Explanation:
You should choose a test technique because you need to match the way you test to the content of the product under test. A test technique is a method or process for deriving and selecting test cases based on some criteria or rules. Different test techniques are suitable for different types of software products, depending on their characteristics, functionalities, requirements, specifications, risks, etc. Choosing a test technique helps to ensure that the test cases are relevant, effective, and efficient for the product under test. The other options are not correct reasons to choose a test technique. Time constraints are not a factor for choosing a test technique, but rather for prioritizing or optimizing testing activities. Covering the full scope of the product's functionality is not a guarantee of choosing a test technique, but rather a goal of testing. Choosing a test technique is not a common practice in software testing, but rather a professional skill and responsibility. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 31.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?
I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.
II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.
III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.
IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.
- A. II, III, IV
- B. III, IV
- C. I, III, IV
- D. I, II, III
Answer: C
Explanation:
An exit criterion is a condition that defines when a test activity has been completed or when a test phase can be concluded. An exit criterion can be based on various factors, such as:
I) Estimates of defect density or reliability measures. These are quantitative measures that indicate how many defects are present in the software product or how likely it is to fail under certain conditions. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the software product meets a certain level of quality or performance before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.
III) Accuracy measures, such as code coverage, functionality coverage or risk coverage. These are quantitative measures that indicate how much of the software product has been tested in terms of its code, functionality or risk. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the test suite is adequate or complete before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.
IV) Residual risks, such as lack of code coverage in certain areas, unresolved defects or unknown factors. These are qualitative measures that indicate the remaining risks or uncertainties associated with the software product after testing. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the residual risks are acceptable or manageable before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer. The following factor is not a valid exit criterion:
II) The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report. This is not a valid exit criterion, as it does not reflect the quality or completeness of the testing process or product. A test report is a document that summarizes the results and outcomes of a test activity or phase. A test report can be used as an input for deciding whether to exit a test activity or phase, but it is not a condition that defines when to exit. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 13; Chapter 6, page 58-59.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
- A. Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives
- B. Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity
- C. Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity D. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions
Answer: C
Explanation:
A test case is a set of input values, execution preconditions, expected results and execution postconditions, developed for a particular objective or test condition. A test case is a sequence of actions for test execution that can be followed by a tester or a test automation tool. A test case is specified during the test implementation activity, which is the activity that prepares the testware needed for test execution. A test case does not include actual results, as these are obtained during test execution and compared with the expected results. A test case does not describe items or events to test, as these are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity. A test case is not derived during the test design activity, as this is the activity that specifies the test conditions or objectives that need to be tested. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 23-24; Chapter 4, page 34.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which sequence of state transition stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting me life-cycle of a defect?
- A. S0->S1->S2->S3->S4
- B. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
- C. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
- D. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5^>S1
Answer: C
Explanation:
The figure depicts the life-cycle of a defect using state transition testing. State transition testing is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions. The figure shows six states (S0 to S5) and seven transitions (T0 to T6). The correct sequence of state transitions that follows the figure is S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3. This sequence represents the following scenario:
S0: The defect is not yet detected (initial state).
T0: The defect is detected by testing (event).
S1: The defect is reported and registered (state).
T1: The defect is assigned to a developer for fixing (event).
S2: The defect is being fixed by the developer (state).
T2: The developer fixes the defect and delivers a new version (event).
S3: The defect is verified by testing (state).
T5: The testing fails to confirm that the defect is fixed (event).
S5: The defect is rejected by testing (state).
T6: The defect is reassigned to a developer for fixing (event).
S1: The defect is reported and registered (state).
T1: The defect is assigned to a developer for fixing (event).
S2: The defect is being fixed by the developer (state).
T2: The developer fixes the defect and delivers a new version (event).
S3: The defect is verified by testing (state). The other sequences are incorrect, as they do not follow the transitions shown in the figure. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 40-41.
NEW QUESTION # 43
A Static analysis tool analyzes a given program's CONTROL FLOW among other things. Which of the following options represents the most likely outcome of the control flow analysis:
- A. Number of source code lines
- B. Report on adherence to the coding standards
- C. Number of comment lines
- D. Identification of unreachable code
Answer: D
Explanation:
A static analysis tool is a tool that analyzes a given program's source code or executable code without executing it. A static analysis tool can perform various types of analysis on a program's code, such as syntax checking, data flow analysis, control flow analysis, complexity measurement, coding standards compliance checking, etc. Control flow analysis is a type of analysis that examines how a program's statements are executed in different paths or branches. One of the most likely outcomes of control flow analysis is identification of unreachable code, which is code that can never be executed due to logical errors or design flaws. Unreachable code can reduce readability and maintainability of the code, as well as increase complexity and size. The other options are not outcomes of control flow analysis, but rather outcomes of other types of analysis. Report on adherence to coding standards is an outcome of coding standards compliance checking. Number of comment lines and number of source code lines are outcomes of complexity measurement. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 8.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?
I Stubs and drivers are often used
II The lest environment should correspond to the production environment III Finding defects is not the main focus IV Testing can be based on use cases V Testing is normally performed by testers VI Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics
- A. Component - V
Integration - II
System - IV
Acceptance - VI - B. Component - IV
Integration -1
System - VI
Acceptance - V - C. Component - VI
Integration - IV
System -1
Acceptance - 111 - D. Component-I
Integration - V
System - II
Acceptance - IV
Answer: A
Explanation:
The relationship between impact analysis and regression testing in maintenance testing is that impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed. Maintenance testing is a type of testing that is performed on an existing software product after it has been delivered or deployed, in order to ensure that it still meets its requirements and functions correctly after a change or a modification. Maintenance testing can be triggered by various reasons, such as corrective maintenance (fixing defects), adaptive maintenance (adapting to new environments), perfective maintenance (improving performance), preventive maintenance (avoiding future problems), etc. Impact analysis is a technique that is used to assess the extent and nature of changes introduced by maintenance activities on the software product or project. Impact analysis helps to identify which parts of the software product are affected by the changes, which parts need to be modified or updated accordingly, which parts need to be retested or verified for correctness or compatibility, etc. Regression testing is a type of testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after a change or a modification. Regression testing helps to detect any side effects or unintended consequences of maintenance activities on the software product's functionality or quality. Regression testing can be performed at various levels and scopes depending on the impact analysis results. Therefore, in maintenance testing, impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 20.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?
- A. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.
- B. EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.
- C. EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.
- D. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Experience based techniques (EBT) are techniques that use the knowledge, intuition and skills of the test engineers to design and execute tests. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies, domains, applications or systems. EBT are not based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques, but rather on their personal judgment and creativity. EBT are not done as a second stage of testing, after non-experience-based testing took place, but rather as a complementary or alternative approach to other techniques. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in both testing and the application or technological domain, as this can help the test engineer identify potential risks, scenarios or defects. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 48-49.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?
- A. Requirements based testing
- B. Metric based approach
- C. Regression testing
- D. Exploratory testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Exploratory testing is an approach to testing that emphasizes learning, test design and test execution at the same time. Exploratory testing relies on the tester's skills, creativity and intuition to explore the software under test and discover defects. Exploratory testing is suitable for a new project with little documentation and high probability for bugs, as it can help uncover unknown requirements, assumptions and risks. Exploratory testing is not requirements based testing, which is an approach to testing that derives test cases from documented requirements or specifications. Requirements based testing is not feasible for a new project with little documentation, as it requires clear and complete requirements to be available. Exploratory testing is not metric based approach, which is an approach to testing that uses quantitative measures to monitor and control the testing process and evaluate the quality of the software product. Metric based approach is not effective for a new project with high probability for bugs, as it may not capture all aspects of quality and may lead to false confidence or unrealistic expectations. Exploratory testing is not regression testing, which is an approach to testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after changes. Regression testing is not relevant for a new project with no previous versions or baselines. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 47-48.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct?
- A. The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.
- B. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.
- C. The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.
- D. The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix. This is also known as regression testing, which is a type of testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after a change. Regression testing helps to detect any side effects or unintended consequences of a fix or a modification. The other options are incorrect reasons for re-running the tests. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded, because this ignores the possibility of new defects caused by the fix. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests, because this assumes that developer tests are sufficient and reliable, which may not be true. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated, because this does not address the impact of the fix on other test cases or functionalities. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 41.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following statements contradicts the general principles of testing?
- A. How testing is done, is based on the situation in a particular project.
- B. Testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project.
- C. If new defects are to be found we should run the same test set more often.
- D. Most defects are found in a small subset of a system's modules.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement B contradicts the general principles of testing, because running the same test set more often will not increase the chances of finding new defects, unless there are some changes in the system or environment that affect the test results. Running different test sets with different inputs, outputs or conditions would be more effective in finding new defects. Statements A, C and D are consistent with the general principles of testing. Statement A states that most defects are found in a small subset of a system's modules, which is true according to the defect clustering principle. Statement C states that testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project, which is true according to the early testing principle. Statement D states that how testing is done, is based on the situation in a particular project, which is true according to the context-dependent testing principle. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, pages 4-6.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is NOT a product risk?
- A. Failure-prone software is delivered
- B. Software does not perform the intended functions
- C. Poor software usability
- D. Problems in defining the right requirements
Answer: D
Explanation:
Problems in defining the right requirements is not a product risk, but rather a project risk. A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or performance of the software product itself, such as poor usability, failure-prone functionality, security vulnerabilities, compatibility issues, etc. A project risk is a risk that affects the management or delivery of the software project itself, such as unrealistic schedule, insufficient resources, unclear scope, changing requirements, etc. The other options are examples of product risks, as they relate to the software product's characteristics or features. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 12.
NEW QUESTION # 50
The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).
Which sentence is correct?
- A. Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development
- B. This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.
- C. Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization
- D. The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard
Answer: C
Explanation:
The IEEE 829 standard is a widely used specification for test documentation, but it is not mandatory or universal. Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization. The standard does not require any approval from management, marketing or development for any deviation, nor does it depend on the type of project (military or consumer market). The standard also does not guarantee high quality test documentation regimes, as it only provides a general outline and format, not the actual content or quality criteria. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 16.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Why it is essential that defects found in a review be reported objectively?
- A. In order to allow the author of reviewed work product(S) to take the feedback positively as an effort at improving the product (S) and not as a personal assault
- B. In order to allow augmentation of existing checklists used for reviewing the work product (S)
- C. In order to facilitate easy entry of detected defects in a OTS (Defect Tracking System)
- D. In order to allow the review moderator to easily understand them, and assign them to the right developer for fixing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The purpose of a review is to find defects and improve the quality of the work product, not to criticize or blame the author. Reporting defects objectively means describing them factually and constructively, without using negative or emotional language that could offend the author or damage their motivation. This way, the author can take the feedback positively as an effort at improving the product and not as a personal assault. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 138.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?
- A. Low cost
- B. Kick-off meeting
- C. Metrics analysis
- D. Individual preparation
Answer: A
Explanation:
A key characteristic of informal reviews is low cost. Informal reviews are a type of review that does not follow a formal process or have any formal documentation. Informal reviews are usually performed by individuals or small groups of peers or colleagues who have some knowledge or interest in the product under review. Informal reviews can be done at any time and for any purpose, such as checking for errors, clarifying doubts, sharing ideas, etc. Informal reviews have low cost, as they do not require much time, effort, or resources to conduct. The other options are not key characteristics of informal reviews. Kick-off meeting is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Kick-off meeting is a meeting that is held before the review process starts, where the roles and responsibilities of the participants are defined, the objectives and scope of the review are agreed, and the logistics and schedule of the review are planned. Individual preparation is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Individual preparation is an activity that is performed by the reviewers before the review meeting, where they examine the product under review and identify any issues or questions that need to be discussed or resolved during the review meeting. Metrics analysis is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Metrics analysis is an activity that is performed after the review process is completed, where the data and results of the review are collected and analyzed to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the review, as well as to identify any improvement actions or lessons learned for future reviews. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 9.
NEW QUESTION # 53
What is 'Component Testing'?
- A. Integration Testing
- B. Experience-based testing
- C. A test level
- D. Functional testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Component testing is a test level. A test level is a group of test activities that are organized and managed together based on some common characteristics or objectives. A test level can be defined based on various factors, such as the scope and target of testing, the phase and model of development, the stakeholders and roles involved in testing, etc. Component testing (also known as unit testing or module testing) is a test level that focuses on verifying the functionality and quality of individual software components (such as modules, classes, functions, methods, etc.). Component testing can be performed by developers or testers using various techniques and tools depending on the type and complexity of the components. The other options are not test levels. Integration testing is another test level that focuses on verifying the functionality and quality of groups of software components that interact with each other or with external systems. Functional testing is a type of black-box dynamic testing that verifies that the system under test performs its intended functions according to its requirements or specifications. Experience-based testing is a category of test design techniques that rely on the tester's knowledge and intuition to derive and select test cases based on their experience with similar systems, technologies, domains, risks, etc. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 19.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:
- A. Planning the review
- B. Decide on the execution of reviews
- C. Determines if the review objectives have been met
- D. Allocate time for review
Answer: C
Explanation:
A formal review is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. A formal review can have various roles involved, such as manager, moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The manager responsibilities in formal review include all except one of the following:
Planning the review (correct responsibility)
Determines if the review objectives have been met (incorrect responsibility) Decide on the execution of reviews (correct responsibility) Allocate time for review (correct responsibility) The responsibility of determining if the review objectives have been met belongs to the moderator role, not to the manager role. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 28-29.
NEW QUESTION # 55
You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password. Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?
- A. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.
- B. Decision coverage, fault attack.
- C. Decision table testing, state transition testing.
- D. Exploratory testing, statement coverage.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis are test design techniques that are most appropriate for testing the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password, which are input values that can be divided into partitions of equivalent data. Equivalence partitioning is a technique that divides the input data and output results of a software component into partitions of equivalent data. Each partition should contain data that is treated in the same way by the component. Equivalence partitioning can be used to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests boundary values between partitions of equivalent data. Boundary values are values at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Boundary value analysis can be used to detect defects caused by incorrect handling of boundary conditions. For example, for testing the user name field, we can identify two equivalence partitions: valid user name (existing and correct) and invalid user name (non-existing or incorrect). The boundary values for these partitions are the minimum and maximum length of user name allowed by the system.
Decision table testing and state transition testing are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions or events. Decision table testing is a technique that shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). State transition testing is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions.
Exploratory testing and statement coverage are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that require learning, creativity and intuition or structural analysis. Exploratory testing is an approach to testing that emphasizes learning, test design and test execution at the same time. Exploratory testing relies on the tester's skills, creativity and intuition to explore the software under test and discover defects. Statement coverage is a type of structural testing that measures how many statements in a program have been executed by a test suite. Statement coverage can be used to assess the adequacy or completeness of a test suite.
Decision coverage and fault attack are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that have complex logic or potential errors. Decision coverage is a type of structural testing that measures how many decision outcomes in a program have been executed by a test suite. Decision coverage can be used to assess the adequacy or completeness of a test suite. Fault attack is a type of functional testing that deliberately introduces faults into a system in order to provoke failures or errors. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 34-46; Chapter 5, page 47-48.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?
- A. The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved
- B. The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing
- C. For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards
- D. The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects
Answer: D
Explanation:
Testing is necessary for various reasons, such as:
To detect defects and failures that may affect the quality, performance, reliability or security of a software product or system To verify that a software product or system meets its specified requirements, expectations and standards To validate that a software product or system fulfills its intended purpose and satisfies its stakeholders' needs To provide information and feedback about the status and risks of a software product or system To comply with regulations or contractual obligations that mandate testing for certain types of software products or systems The following statements describe some reasons why testing is necessary:
A) The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a contractual obligation or a quality standard that requires testing to measure and achieve a certain level of code coverage.
C) For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a regulation or a compliance requirement that mandates testing for certain types of software products or systems that have high safety or security risks.
D) The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a risk-based approach that considers testing as an investment to reduce the probability and impact of potential failures or defects. The following statement does not describe a reason why testing is necessary:
B) The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects. This is not a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a business decision or a resource allocation that does not justify the need or purpose of testing. Test automation tools are not always suitable or beneficial for all projects, and testing can be performed with or without test automation tools. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 5-6.
NEW QUESTION # 57
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